Quiz: Exams — AUA MCQ

1. Definition of Risk Factor:

A a. A factor that increases the incidence of disease. B b. A factor that decreases the incidence of disease. C c. A factor that does not affect the incidence of disease. D d. None of the above

1. Definition of Risk Factor:

A a. A factor that increases the incidence of disease. B b. A factor that decreases the incidence of disease. C c. A factor that does not affect the incidence of disease. D d. None of the above

2) Modifiable Risk Factors for Cardiovascular Diseases:

A a. Sex. B b. Genetic factors. C c. Obesity. D d. All of the above.

3) Role of Endothelial Damage in Thrombus Formation:

A a. Decreases endothelial permeability. B b. Decreases platelet aggregation. C c. Increases leukocyte adhesion. D d. Decreases generation of cytokines.

4) Vitamin that Decreases LDL:

A a. B12 B b. Niacin. C c. B6 D d. Folate

5) Kinins:

A a. Precursors of kinins are secreted as prekallikrein B b. Kininogen is its substrate. C c. There are two kinins present in mammals. D d. Kallidin is an antagonist.

6) Characteristics of Intercalated Discs (Except):

A a. Dark lines. B b. Run transversely. C c. Run in a step-wise manner D e. Characteristic of smooth muscle.

7) Main Components of Moderator Band (Except):

A a. Cardiac muscle b. Purkinje fibers. B c. Blood vessels C d. Fat cells. D e. Mesenchymal cells.

8) Avoidance in Digitalis Toxicity:

A . Lidocaine if there is arrhythmia B b. Atropine if there is heart block. C c. Potassium chloride if there is heart block. D d. Administration of digitalis antagonist (digibind)

9) Regarding Angina Pectoris (True Statement):

A a. Beta blockers are used in vasospastic angina. B b. Abrupt withdrawal of beta blockers can lead to hypotension C c. The preferred combination is organic nitrates & beta blockers D d. Nifedipine is preferred over verapamil for angina

10) Regarding Digitalis (Correct Statement):

A a. They act by stimulating the sodium/potassium ATPase enzyme. B b. GIT manifestations are the earliest symptoms of toxicity C c. Potassium is given in all cases of digitalis toxicity to compete with digitalis at the sodium/potassium ATPase enzyme. D d. Lidocaine is not effective in digitalis toxicity-induced ventricular arrhythmia.

11) Cyclization of Squalene Forms:

A a. Cholesterol. B b. Isoprenoid unit C c. Zymosterol. D d. Lanosterol.

12) Most Common Cause of Ischemic Heart Disease:

A a. Coronary artery atherosclerosis. B b. Coronary artery embolism. C c. Coronary artery dissection. D d. Coronary artery vasculitis.

13) Investigations for Acute Myocardial Infarction (Except):

A a. Echocardiography B b. Abdominal Ultrasonography C c. Electrocardiogram D d. Coronary Angiography

14) ECG Signs of Myocardial Ischemia (Except):

A a. ST segment depression. B b. ST segment elevation. C c. T wave inversion. D d. Short PR interval

15) Prolonged Fixed PR Interval on ECG Indicates:

A a. Complete heart block. B b. Second-degree heart block. C c. First-degree heart block. D d. Sinus bradycardia

16) True Statement

A a. ACE inhibitors are used in hypertension but not in angina pectoris. B b. The ACE inhibitors are absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy. C c. Verapamil is not the calcium channel blocker of choice in angina. D d. Quinidine is an antiarrhythmic that acts by blocking calcium channels. e. Alpha methyldopa is not the preferred antihypertensive drug in pregnancy.

17) Small Doses of Aspirin in Angina Prophylaxis:

A a. Induce coronary dilatation. B b. Provide analgesia. C c. Inhibit platelet aggregation. D d. Options a and b.

17) Small Doses of Aspirin in Angina Prophylaxis:

A a. Induce coronary dilatation. B b. Provide analgesia. C c. Inhibit platelet aggregation. D d. Options a and b.

18) Secondary Causes of Hypertension:

A a. Renal artery stenosis. B b. Pheochromocytoma. C c. Glomerulonephritis D d. All of the above.

18) Secondary Causes of Hypertension:

A a. Renal artery stenosis. B b. Pheochromocytoma. C c. Glomerulonephritis D d. All of the above.

19) Valvular Heart Diseases:

A a. Valve stenosis B b. Valve incompetence. C c. Valve stenosis & incompetence. D e. All of the above

20) Most Common Valve Disease:

A a. Tricuspid valve disease. B b. Mitral valve disease. C c. Pulmonary valve disease. D d. All of the above

20) Most Common Valve Disease:

A a. Tricuspid valve disease. B b. Mitral valve disease. C c. Pulmonary valve disease. D d. All of the above

21) Female Patient with Rheumatic Heart Disease and Mitral Regurgitation (Presenting with Acute Onset of Fever and Toxic Manifestations):

A a. Hypertension B b. Heart failure. C c. Infective endocarditis D d. Ischemic heart disease.

22) The Absolute Refractory Period in the Ventricles:

A a. Is the period when the ventricles are completely inexcitable. B b. Corresponds to the period of ventricular repolarization. C c. Is shorter than the corresponding period in atrial muscle D d. Increases during sympathetic stimulation of the heart.

23) During Isometric Ventricular Contraction:

A a. Left coronary blood flow falls. B b. Pressure in the aorta rises C c. Pressure in the atria falls. D d. The rate of rise in pressure is greater in the right ventricle than in the left ventricle

24) Regarding Pulmonary Circulation:

A a. Pulmonary arterial diastolic pressure exceeds aortic diastolic pressure. B b. The rate of blood flow through the pulmonary circulation is significantly lower than through the systemic circulation. C c. Pulmonary vascular resistance is much lower than systemic vascular resistance. D d. Right ventricular stroke volume is less than left ventricular stroke volume.

25) Ventricular pressure is higher than atrial pressure in all phases of the cardiac cycle EXCEPT in:

A a. Isometric contraction phase B b. Atrial systole phase. C c. Maximum ejection phase D d. Reduced ejection phase

26) Maximal Coronary Blood Flow Occurs During the:

A a. Early part of systole. B b. Late part of systole. C c. Early part of diastole D d. End of diastole.

27) Slowest Conducting Velocity in the Conducting System

A a. Sinoatrial Node (SAN B b. Atrioventricular Node (AVN). C c. Atrial muscle D d. Purkinje fibres

28) The strength of contraction is proportional to:

A a. Myocardial oxygen supply. B b. Stroke volume C c. The end diastolic volume. D d. Arterial blood pressure.

29) Stroke Volume (SV) is Likely to Decrease:

A a. During moderate exercise. B b. During marked tachycardia. C c. When aortic impedance is decreased D d. When the end diastolic volume is increased.

30) Leg Edema Could be Due to All of the Following EXCEPT:

A a. Cardiac failure with raised venous pressure. B b. Decreased plasma albumin level. C c. Lymphatic obstruction in the legs D d. Raised systemic blood pressure due to arteriolar constriction.

31) Statements about Coronary Blood Flow, Identify the Untrue Statement

A a. Is increased by the indirect effect of norepinephrine B b. Is increased during muscular exercise through vasodilation of small deep coronary vessels as a result of hypoxia and metabolites producing reactive hyperemia C c. Shows a low O2 reserve in venous blood as the heart extracts 70 to 90% of the O2 from arterial blood. D d. Depends on anastomoses between small coronary blood vessels

32) The Azygos Vein Ends Into

A a. Superior vena cava B b. Inferior vena cava C c. Right brachiocephalic vein. D d. Right atrium

33) Which Vein Does Not Open Into the Right Atrium?

A a. Anterior cardiac veins. B b. Great cardiac vein. C c. Superior vena cava. D d. Inferior vena cava

34) The Coronary Sinus Opens Into:

A a. Left atrium. B b. Right ventricle. C c. Right atrium. D d. Left ventricle.

35) Smooth Part of the Left Atrium is Formed Of:

A a. Common atrium. B b. Body of sinus venosus. C c. Truncus arteriosus. D d. Absorption of pulmonary veins

36) Regarding the Left Coronary Artery, Identify the Incorrect Statement:

A a. Gives anterior interventricular artery. B b. Arises from the left posterior aortic sinus C c. Circumflex artery is one of its branches D d. Gives posterior interventricular artery.

37) Regarding the Right Ventricle, Identify the Incorrect Statement:

A a. Pumps blood into the pulmonary trunk. B b. Forms the base of the heart C c. Its muscular ridges are called trabeculae carneae D d. Infundibulum is developed from the bulbuscordis

38) Crucial for Diagnosis of Infective Endocarditis:

A a. Complete blood picture. B b. Blood culture C c. Antistreptolysin O titer D d. Antibiotic susceptibility test.

39) Constrictive Pericarditis Can Lead To:

A a. Cardiac tamponade. B b. Hemopericardium C c. Restrictive cardiomyopathy D d. Congestive heart failure.

40) Type of Pericarditis Associated with Rheumatic Heart Disease:

A a. Fibrinous. B b. Serous. C c. Catarrhal. D d. Pyogenic

41) Not a Complication of Hypertension:

A a. Benign nephrosclerosis B b. Renal failure. C c. Liver cell failure D d. Cerebral stroke.

42) Atherosclerosis Predominantly Affects:

A a. Intima B b. Media. C c. Adventitia D d. Entire vessel wall.

43) Medial Calcification of Arteries is Seen In:

A a. Mönckeberg's arteriosclerosis B b. Senile arteriosclerosis. C c. Atherosclerosis. D d. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum

44) Most Common Heart Tumor:

A a. Myxoma B b. Hemangioma C c. Angiosarcoma. D d. Glomus tumor.

45) Marker Likely to Show Increased Levels 12 Days After Acute Myocardial Infarction:

A a. Total CK. B b. CK-MB. C c. AST D d. cTnT

46) Panic Levels of Sodium are:

A a. 110 mmol/L and >160 mmol/L B b. 135-150 mmol/L. C c. <135 mmol/L and >150 mmol/L. D d. 200 mmol/L.

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