Quiz: Diseases Controlled by Vaccination

Q1. All are correct about influenza EXCEPT:

A A. "Spanish Flu" has killed at least 40 million people in 1918-1919 B B. Recently, limited outbreaks of a new influenza H5N1 occurred. C C. Annual influenza epidemics affect 5-15% of the population. D D. Human cases of H5N1 have never been reported in Egypt.

Q2. Choose the Incorrect Answer about influenza:

A A. Influenza is an acute infection of the respiratory tract. B B. Influenza virus types A and B usually occur in winter & spring C C. Influenza viruses (types A and B) cause epidemic disease D D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can't be used to detect RNA of influenza virus in respiratory secretions.

Q3. All are correct about influenza EXCEPT:

A A. Influenza type A viruses are divided according to surface proteins called Hemagglutinin (HA) and Neuraminidase (NA). B B. Incubation period ranges from 1-4 days. Peak virus shedding occurs from 1 day before onset of symptoms to 3 days after C C. Aspirin and other salicylate-containing medications can be used for children and adolescents with influenza-like illness. D D. H5N1 virus does not usually infect humans.

Q4. Which of the following statements is not true?

A A. Influenza A may undergo antigenic shift B B. Influenza A may undergo antigenic drift C C. Influenza B may undergo antigenic shift D D. Influenza B may undergo antigenic drift .

Q5. Choose the correct answer regarding influenza:

A A. Influenza a and B viruses both undergo gradual, continuous change in the HA and NA proteins, known as antigenic drift. B B. Antibodies produced to influenza infection or vaccination with earlier strains protect against viruses circulating in later years C C. Surveillance isn't necessary to identify influenza virus variants D D. Influenza vaccines provide protection against avian influenza.

Q6. Choose the Incorrect Answer about influenza:

A A. The infection rate of influenza viruses is high in all age groups. B B. No difference based on sex has been identified. C C. Typical symptoms begin 2-3 weeks after exposure to the virus. D D. It produces an acute febrile respiratory illness with cough, headache, and myalgia for 3-4 days

Q7. Choose the Incorrect Answer about influenza:

A A. Hand washing with soap and water is the most appropriate way to prevent infection by influenza virus B B. Vaccination in targeted high-risk populations is the best means of preventing severe disease caused by influenza virus. C C. Amantadine and rimantadine interfere with the replication cycle of influenza A & B viruses. D D. The prognosis for recovery is excellent.

Q8. Choose the Incorrect Answer about Avian influenza:

A A. Most cases of avian influenza have occurred from direct or close contact with infected poultry or contaminated surfaces B B. H5N1 infection may followed by an aggressive clinical course. C C. There is no evidence that properly cooked poultry or eggs can be a source of infection for avian influenza D D. Wearing a mask is recommended for routine use. (e.g., in public) for preventing influenza exposure

Q9. Measles is an illness characterized by following except:

A A. Measles affects human only B B. A generalized maculopapular rash lasting <3 days C C. Temperature: 38.3°C D D. Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis

Q10. Choose the Incorrect statement concerning Measles virus:

A A. DNA virus B B. Can cross the placenta C C. rapidly inactivated by heat and light. D D. Has a singling character (can strike all those who are not infected before or immunized)

Q11. All are correct about Measles EXCEPT:

A A. The virus is highly contagious; a 5% susceptible population is sufficient to sustain periodic outbreaks. B B. Birds are the main source of infection C C. Maternal antibodies play a significant role in protection against Infection in infants younger than 1 year D D. previous attacks confer life-long immunity

Q12. All are correct about Measles EXCEPT:

A A. Koplic's spots appear on the buccal mucosa near the end of the prodrome just after appearance of rash B B. Complications include otitis media and bronchopneumonia C C. Vitamin A supplementation during acute measles significantly reduces risks of morbidity and mortality D D. Mortality is due to respiratory and neurologic complications

Q13. All are correct about Ender's or Schwartz - Vaccine EXCEPT:

A A. It is a living attenuated vaccine B B. It is compulsory at 12 months in Egypt C C. It gives transient immunity. D D. It is contraindicated during pregnancy

Q14. Parotitis can be caused by:

A A. Mumps virus B B. HIV Virus C C. Coxsackie A virus D D. All of them

Q15. All are correct about German Measles EXCEPT:

A A. It is caused by rubella virus - RNA virus. B B. Incubation period is usually 3 days. C C. The synonym "3-day measles" derives from the typical course of rubella exanthema. D D. Enlarged posterior auricular and sub-occipital lymph nodes are usually found on physical examination.

Q16. Which is correct concerning Congenital Rubella Syndrome?

A A. Fetal infection occurs transplacentally during maternal viremia B B. Congenital rubella is characterized by eye, ear, heart defects C C. I.U. growth retardation, prematurity, & stillbirth are common. D D. All of the above

Q17. Concerning MMR vaccine - Choose the Incorrect answer

A A. MMR vaccine is especially recommended for all adults at risk (e.g., college students, military recruits, and health care personnel). B B. Post-pubertal females should be vaccinated unless they are pregnant. C C. MMR can be given to pregnant women. D D. Anaphylactic reaction to MMR is rare

Q18. All are correct about Chickenpox (Varicella) EXCEPT:

A A. The varicella-zoster virus (VZV) is the etiologic agent of the clinical syndrome of chickenpox (varicella) B B. Chickenpox affecting a healthy child is usually a self-limited disease. C C. Primary maternal chickenpox infection during the first 20 weeks of gestation may also rarely produce the congenital varicella syndrome D D. Previous attacks are not protective against recurrence.

Q19. The following are RNA viruses except

A A. Varicella-zoster virus B B. A and B Influenza viruses C C. Measles Virus D D. Mumps virus

Q20. Which statement is true about Varicella-Zoster Virus?

A A. Causes a maculopapular rash B B. Remains latent in sensory ganglia after primary infect. C C. Recurrent episodes of Shingles usually occur D D. Patients with shingles are not infectious

Q21. The following viruses can be transmitted via placenta:

A A. Varicella-zoster virus B B. Measles Virus C C. Rubella virus D D. All of the above

Q22. Which virus is associated with vesicular rash?

A A. Rubella Virus B B. Varicella-Zoster Virus C C. Parvovirus D D. Measles Virus

Q23. All are true about Poliomyelitis Except:

A A. It is an acute viral infection & highly pathogenic to man. B B. 3 types of viruses are known. C C. The viruses are immunologically stable D D. Wild animals are the natural host for polioviruses.

Q24. Choose the Incorrect Answer about Poliomyelitis

A A. Trans-placental infection might occur. B B. Virus enters the mouth and primary multiplication occurs in lymphoid tissues in the oropharynx and intestinal tract. C C. One in 10 infections leads to irreversible paralysis. D D. The spinal cord and brain are the only sites of significant virus- induced pathology

Q25. Choose correct answer about poliomyelitis eradication

A A. Achievement of the highest routine immunization coverage (>90%) with at least 3 doses of oral polio vaccine (OPV). B B. Surveillance every case of acute flaccid paralysis in children C C. Supplementary mass campaigns & national immunization days. D D. All of the above

Q26. Which is correct about Feasibility of poliomyelitis eradication?

A A. Immunity can be provided by 2 excellent vaccines B B. The (3) Immunological types of viruses are genetically instable C C. OPV is expensive D zD. Polio Virus is present in animal's reservoir

Q27. Choose the Correct answer about Sabin vaccine

A A. Yellow in color. B B. Gives local & systemic immunity. C C. Given I.M. D D. Killed vaccine

Q27. Choose the Correct answer about Sabin vaccine

A A. Yellow in color. B B. Gives local & systemic immunity. C C. Given I.M. D D. Killed vaccine

Q28. Which is correct about contraindication of Sabin vaccine?

A A. Vomiting. B B. Diarrhea C C. Fever. D D. None of the above.

Q29. National Immunization Days (NIDs) for polio eradication:

A A. Best conducted in summer. B B. Helps to interrupt wild polio virus C C. Immunization of all children under one year of life. D D. Use Salk vaccine for immunization of children.

Q30. Choose the Incorrect answer about Diphtheria:

A A. Organism's major virulence is its ability to produce exotoxins. B B. An exclusive inhabitant of human mucous membranes and skin. C C. Non-toxigenic strains are not able to cause the disease. D D. The primary focus of infection is the tonsils or pharynx.

Q31. Choose the Incorrect answer about Diphtheria:

A A. It is caused by Gram positive bacilli B B. Toxin absorption is greatest in pharyngeal disease. C C. "Bull neck" is diagnostic of mild cases. D D. Prognosis depends on the virulence of the organism.

Q32. Choose the Incorrect answer about Diphtheria:

A A. Membrane formation begins after the 2-5 day incubation period B B. Other sites of infection are external ear, eye & genital mucosa. C C. Toxic cardiopathy occurs in in approximately 10-25% of patients D D. Previously immunized, close contacts don't need vaccination.

Q33. Choose the Incorrect answer about Diphtheria:

A A. More prevalent in poor socioeconomic conditions B B. Bacteriologic culturing is essential to confirm the diagnosis. C C. Antibiotic therapy can be used as substitute for antitoxin one. D D. Penicillin & erythromycin only are recommended for treatment.

Q34. Choose the Incorrect answer about Diphtheria:

A A. Rare before 6 months due to presence of maternal antibodies. B B. Toxoid induces Serological, clinical & bacteriological protection. C C. Diphtheria toxoid induces Serological & clinical protection only. D D. Notification through reporting to local Health authority.

Q35. Choose the Incorrect answer about Diphtheria:

A A. Passive immunity may be acquired via trans-placental. B B. Body produces Abs against the Diphtheria toxins & organism. C C. Persons having diphtheria should be immunized. D D. Antibodies protective effect fades after 10 years of vaccination

Q36. The following are true about Pertussis Except.

A A. B pertussis attaches to and damage respiratory epithelium. B B. Criterion of diagnosis is isolation of B pertussis in culture. C C. Most of the reactivity to DPT vaccine is due to pertussis toxoid. D D. Previous attacks confer transient immunity.

Q37. The following are true about Tetanus Except:

A A. Fatality rate in neonatal tetanus doesn't exceed 10%. B B. It is considered a form of wound infection caused by C. tetani. C C. C. tetani is a mobile, spore-forming, anaerobic, gram-positive bacillus. D D. The reservoir of infection is the intestines of animals and man,

Q38. The following are true about DPT vaccination Except

A A. DPT vaccination is recommended at 2, 4, 6 and 18 months. B B. Pregnant female should be immunized with Tetanus Toxoid. C C. Adults loose their protection after 10 years D A. D.Patients can contract tetanus from the vaccine.

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