Quiz: questions — AUA MCQ

B-1, 4Which of the following are the principles of risk management (risk identification - risk analysis-risk assessment-risk control)

A A- 1,2,3 B B- 1, 4 C C- 1,3,4 D D- 1,2,3,4

What is the first step in risk assessment?

A A- Record your finding B B- Evaluate the risk C C- Identify the hazards D D- Decide who me be harmed

Who should undertake the risk assessment?

A A- The health and safety executive B B- A competent person C C- The manager D D- An employee

Who is most likely to be at risk from harm in the workplace?

A A- Patients B B- Doctors C C- Visitors D D- People with disabilities

Risk management consists of which of the following?

A A. Identifying potential dangers of all kinds B B. Maintaining a safe environment from a physical and legal viewpoint C C. Responding to incidents that may give rise to litigation D D. All of the above

Within an organization, when attempting to manage and control risk, the organization should be aware that

A A. consideration of risk perception is not required B B. consideration should be given to internal controls only C C. uncertainty must be taken into account D D. uncertainty need not be considered

A large organization is assessing a risk and has just established and identified the risks to which it is exposed. What is likely to be the next stage?

A A. Analyzing risks B B. Eliminating risks C C. Evaluating risks D D. Treating risks

One of the primary reasons that an organization should monitor and regularly review its risk management process is to

A A. considers whether lessons could be learned for future management of risks B B. ensures that all significant risks are eliminated immediately C C. evidence that all risks are measured in financial terms only D D. evidence that an internationally-recognized framework is followed at all times

What is risk?

A A- Negative consequence that could occur B B- Negative consequence that will occur C C- Negative consequence that must occur D D- Negative consequence that shall occur

Performing an analysis of risks and conditions to prioritize their impacts on project objectives is known as

A A- Quantitative Risk Analysis B B- Qualitative Risk Analysis C C-cRisk Management Planning D D- Risk Identification

Inote aking the decision of rignagement what should be consider before risk?

A A- Risk assessment B B- Risk identification C C- Risk retention D D- Risk transfer

The potential of gaining or losing something of value

A A. Risk B B. Risk assessment C C. Risk management D D. Risk tools

The process of making and carrying out decisions that will assist in the prevention of adverse consequences and minimize the adverse effects of accidental losses upon an organization

A A. Risk B B. Risk assessment C C. Risk management D D. Risk tools

A program directed toward identifying, evaluating, and taking corrective action against potential risks that could lead to injury

A A. Risk B B. Risk assessment C C. Risk management D D. Risk tools

Identifying and analyzing situations or practices that create financial risk for the hospital and medical staff

A A. Risk B B. Risk assessment C Risk management D D. Risk tools

The characterization of the potential adverse health effects of human exposures to environmental hazards

A A. Risk B B. Risk assessment C C. Risk management D D. Risk tools

The methods for risk management consist of the following elements, except

A A. Identify, characterize threats B B. Assess the vulnerability of critical assets to specific threats C C. Identify ways to reduce those risks D D. Disaster Management and Preparedness

Risk Management will be responsible, interface with, the following hospital and clinic areas are, except

A A. Patient Incident and Employee Accident Reportingom B B. Safety Program C C.Prioritize risk reduction measures D D. Employee Health and Work Place Hazards

Five basic strategies to control risks are, except

A A. Defense B B. Mitigation C C. Acceptance D D. Hazard Surveillance

Risk management application of risk management tools and strategies in hospital are, except

A A. Meetings/Committee Reports B B. Cyber Risk C C. Hazard Vulnerability Analysis D D. Risk Analysis Form

The basic strategies to control risk is reducing the impact of information assets should an attacker successfully exploit a vulnerability is called

A A. Defense B B. Transferal C C. Mitigation D D. Acceptance

Risk Management includes all of the following processes except

A A. Risk Monitoring and Control B B. Risk Identification C C. Risk Avoidance D D. Risk Management Planning

When should a risk be avoided?

A A. When the risk event is unaceptablability of occurence and low impact B B. When the risk event is unaceptablability C C. When it can be transferred by purchasing insurance D D. A risk event can never be avoided

Risk mitigation involves all but which of the following

A A. Developing system standards (policies, procedures, responsibility standards) B B. Identification of project risks C C. Performing contingent planning D D. Developing planning alternatives

What is the first step in risk assessment

A A. record your finding B B. evaluate the risk C C. identify the hazards D D. decide who me be harmed

In the process of the risk management what should be consider before taking the decision of risk?

A A. risk assessment B B. risk identification C C. risk retention D D. risk transfer

Which of the following a difference between poisoning in children and adults

A A- More children die from poisonings than adults B B- Many adults do not seek assistance for a poisoning until symptoms appear C C- Most poisonings in children involve plants; whereas most adults are poisoned with chemicals in the workplace D D- Children are not likely to ingest substances that adults find distasteful

Which of the following is true regarding therapy with multiple doses of activated charcoal for a poisoning?

A A- For drugs for which it is effective, the elimination half-life of the drug can be decreased by multiple doses of activated charcoal B B- It should be used for most drug overdoses C C- Substances with a short duration in the body are more likely to respond to this drug D D- It should be avoided in patients with hyperactive bowel sounds

Results from long-term exposure to lower doses of a chemical is known as

A A- Acute toxicity B B- Chronic toxicity C C- Moderate toxicity D D- High toxicity

What specific antidote is used at poisoning by iron preparations?

A A- Penicillamine B B- Bemegride C C- Atropine sulphate D D- Desferrioxamine

If suspect that conscious person has been poisoned. Your first call should be

A A- The Poison Control Center or your local emergency phone number B B-The victim's physician C C- The hospital emergency department D D- The local pharmacy

A 15-year-old boy has just splashed a chemical on his face. After sending someone to call for an ambulance, you would

A A- Cover the burned area B B- Have the victim stay calm until ambulance arrives C C- Flush the burned area with large amounts of water until the ambulance arrives D D- Immediately drive the victim to the hospital

You may suspect that a student has been poisoned if they

A A- Are experiencing nausea, vomiting or diarrheals B B- Have chest or abdominal pain, breathing difficulty C C- Burns around the lips, tongue, or on the skin D D- All of the above

A boy has a sliver in his eye, you should

A A. Attempt to remove the splinter with tweezers B B. Flush the eye with cool water or milk C C. Leave the sliver in, Call for help D D. Wrap sterile gauze around the head covering both eyes

The first priority in helping a person who may have been poisoned is to ensure that

A A. The person is conscious B B. The person can breathe C C. Bystanders are not poisoned as well D D. Bystanders do not interfere with rescuers

Which of the following is NOT automatically included in first aid. steps when ingestion of a poison is suspected?

A A- Call a poison control center B B- Encourage the victim to vomit C C- Identify the poison by reading the label D D- Prevent additional absorption of the poison

Poisoning may be caused by

A A. Heavy metals B B. Chemicals C C. Drugs D D. All of the above

Poisoning with acetaminophen (paracetamol) can cause

A A. Damage to lung B B. Damage to liver C C. Damage to heart D D. Damage to bones

Pinpoint pupils (of the eyes) is observed in the following poisoning

A A. Belladonna poisoning B B. Morphine poisoning C C. Heavy metals poisoning D D. Atropine poisoning

A substance that is used to neutralize or counteract the effect of a poison is called

A A. Antibiotic B B. Antidote C C. Anti-inflammatory D D. Anti-allergy

Which of the following is used to chelate iron in iron poisoning?

A A. Desferrioxamine B B. Ferrous oxide C C. Ferric oxide D D. All of the above

Which of the following household items is the most harmful if swallowed?

A A. Liquid dish soap X B B. Liquid or powdered automatic dishwashing detergent C C. Fluoride toothpaste x D D. Mouthwash

Which one of these medicines and supplements fatally poisons the most young children?

A A. Pet medications B B. Multivitamins C C. Cough syruр D D. Painkillers

What's the best way to keep children from getting poisoned from over-the-counter and prescription medications?

A A. Never call medicine candy B B. Make sure house guests don't leave medicines lying around C C. Keep all medicines out of reach D D. All of the above

You suspect that person has been poisoned. He is conscious. Your first call should be to

A A. The Poison Control Center or your local emergency phone number B B. The victim's physician C C. The hospital emergency department D D. The local pharmacy

Which of the following should be done for a person experiencing a heat related illness?

A A- Keep the victim warm B B- Force the victim to drink fluids C C- Apply cool wet cloths D D- Place the victim in warm water

When caring for a student who is suffering from heat cramps

A A- Apply cold packs B B- Give cool water or sports drink C C- Have student keep walking slowly to work the cramp out D D- Massage the muscle vigorously to increase circulation

What symptoms are associated with heat exhaustion

A A- Cool, moist, pale, or flushed skin B B- Rapid weak pulse C C- Rapid, shallow breathing D D- All of the above

Heat stroke

A A- Causes very high body temperature B B- Hot red or dry skin C C- Rapid weak pulse, shallow breathing D D- All of the above

When caring for someone who is suffering from frostbite, you should not

A A- Soak effected part in warm water 100 to 105 degrees B B- Rub vigorously until skin appears red and feels warm C C- Handle area gently D D- Avoid breaking blisters

Hypothermia

A A- Is not life threatening. X B B- Victims must be heated up as fast as possible C C- Is caused by exposure to temperatures below freezing. X D D- Can be caused by swimming in waters below 70 degrees

What is more serious?

A A- Heat Stroke B B- Heat Exhaustion C C- Heat Cramps D D- Heat Rash

Where doesn't heat cramps occur at?

A A. Arm B B. Leg C C. Foot D D. Abdomen

Which is not a sign of hypothermia?

A A. Uncontrollable shivering B B. Cold skin even under clothing C C. Confusion D D. Numbness

The signs of heat exhaustion include all except

A A. Sever thirst B B. Sever cough C C. Headache D D. Weakness

Frostbite only happens when what?

A A. Body temperature drop more than 2 F B B. Air below freezing comes in contact with skin C C. Temperatures drop below freezing D D. Body temperature drop more than 1 F

Which one is an actual symptom of heatstroke?

A A. Seizures B B. Sweating C C. Nausea D D. Vomiting

In which situation would you wrap a casualty in a cold, wet sheet?

A A. Stroke B B. Fainting C C. Heat stroke D D. Heart attack

When caring for a student who is suffering from heat cramps

A A. Apply cold packs B B. Give cool water or sports drink C C. Have student keep walking slowly to work the cramp out D D. Massage the muscle vigorously to increase circulation

When caring for someone who is suffering from frostbite, you should not

A A. Soak effected part in warm water 100 to 105 degrees B B. Rub vigorously until skin appears red and feels warm C C. Handle area gently D D. Avoid breaking blisters

The condition, which lacks complete information on action alternatives

A A. Certainty condition B B. Risk condition C C. Uncertainty condition Div D D. Crisis condition

As part of an organization's risk management process, when considering risk and uncertainty, the risk team must be aware that

A A. risk assessment is the sole method of reducing uncertainty B B. risk can apply to both opportunities and threats to the organization C C. uncertainty should always be considered completely separately from risk D D. uncertainty should only be considered when reviewing long-term objectives

Third step in decision making process is

A A- Lmear predictions B B- Dependent predictions C C- Making predictions D D- Independent predictions

Fourth step in decision making process is

A A- Linear correlation B B. Making decisions C C- Implement decisions D D- Evaluate performance

The internal factors that affecting decision making include the following except

A A- Experience B B- Knowledge C C- Attitude D D- Resources

Selecting a best course of action among the alternatives is called as

A A. decision making B B. planning C C. organizing D D. controlling

A decision which is taken to meet unexpected situation

A A. problem decision B B. certainty decisions C C. crisis decision D D. organizational decision

A first aid responder should move a victim when

A A- it would make it easier to administer first aid B B- The victim is in a dangerous position C C- Never D D- Both a & b

There are three basic steps you can take in an emergency

A A- Call, Check, Care B B- Check, Call, Care C C. Recognize, Decide, Call D D. Decide, Execute, Call

Dressing and bandages are used to

A A. Reduce the victim's pain B B. Reduce internal bleeding C C. Help control bleeding and prevent infection D D. Make it easier to take the victim to the hospital

Breathing emergencies may be caused from

A A- Asthma or Allergic reaction B B- Hyperventilation C C- Injury to a muscle or bone in the chest D D- All of the above

Dressings and pads

A A- Should be removed when blood soaked. New ones should be applied B B- Are used to help control bleeding and keep germs out C C- Are not included in a first aid kit D D- Should be applied to a sucking chest wound

When should you give rescue breathing?

A A-Conscious choking victim B B-Unconscious choking victim C C-Unconscious, no pulse, not breathing D D- Unconscious, not breathing, but has a pulse

When can you move a victim?

A A- When you need to care for another victim B B- When the victim is in danger C C- When it would be easier to care for the victim D D- All of the above

What is the full form of DRAB in medical first aid?

A A. Danger, response, airway and breathing B B. Danger, react, airway and breathing C C. Drag, response, airway and breathing D D. Drag, react, attack and breathing

How should you open the airway of an unconscious casualty?

A A. Head tilt and chin lift B B. Jaw thrust C C. Head tilt and jaw thrust D D. Lift the chin

How long would you check to see if an unconscious victim is breathing?

A A. No more than 10 seconds B B. Approximately 10 seconds C C. Exactly 10 seconds D D. At least 10 seconds

You are a lone first aider and have an unconscious non-breathing adult, what should you do first?

A A. Start CPR with 30 chest compressions B B. Give five initial rescue breaths C C. Call 123 requesting AED (defibrillator) and ambulance D D. Give two initial rescue breaths

Which is the correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for use in CPR of an adult casualty?

A A. 2 compressions: 30 rescue breaths B B. 5 compressions: 1 rescue breath C C. 15 compressions: 2 rescue breaths D D. 30 compressions: 2 rescue breaths

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the chain of survival?

A A. 123. CPR. Defibrillation. Advanced care B B. CPR. Defibrillation. 123. Advanced care C C. Defibrillation. CPR. 123. Advanced care D D. Defibrillation. 123. CPR. Advanced care

What is the cause of angina?

A A. Insufficient blood reaching the lungs B B. Insufficient blood reaching the brain C C. Insufficient blood reaching the heart muscle D D. Insufficient blood reaching the leg muscles

What should a casualty with a severe allergy carry at all times?

A A. Insulin B B. Acetaminophen/Paracetamol C C. Adrenaline (Epipen) D D. Aspirin

Which test should you use if you suspect that a casualty has had a stroke?

A A. Face, Arms, Speech, Test B B. Alert, Voice, Pain, Unresponsive C C. Response, Airway, Breathing. Circulation D D. Pulse, Respiratory Rate, Temperature

Which of the following can cause a stroke?

A A. A blood clot in an artery in the brain B B. A blood clot in an artery in the heart C C. A blood clot in an artery in the leg D D. A blood clot in an artery in the lungs

What should your first action be when treating an electrical burn?

A A. Ensure that the casualty is still breathing B B. Wash the burn with cold water C C. Check for danger and ensure that contact with the electrical source is broken D D. Check for level of response

What is an open fracture?

A A. A fracture in which the bone ends can move around B B. A fracture in which the bone is exposed as the skin is broken C C. A fracture which causes complications such as a punctured lung D D. A fracture in which the bone has bent and split

Which medical condition will develop from severe blood loss?

A A. Shock B B. Hypoglycaemia C C. Anaphylaxis D D. Hypothermia

What names are given to the three different depths of burns?

A A. Small, medium and large B B. First, second and third degree C C. Minor, medium and severe D D. Superficial, partial thickness, full thickness

What is a faint?

A A. A response to fear B B. An unexpected collapse C C. A brief loss of consciousness D D. A sign of flu

What steps would you take to control bleeding from a nosebleed?

A A. Sit casualty down, lean forward and pinch soft part of nose B B. Sit casualty down, lean backward and pinch soft part of nose C C. Lie casualty down and pinch soft part of nose D D. Lie casualty down and pinch top of nose

After someone has fainted what position should they be in to aid recovery?

A A. Lay flat B B. Lay down with legs raised C C. Sit in chair D D. Stand upright

What position should the head be in during a nosebleed?

A A. Head forward B B. Head level C C. Head backwards D D. Head tilted to side

Burns larger than 1% of the body. What is the equivalent size of 1%?

A A. Head B B. Palm including fingers C C. Fingers D D. Forearm

What is normal body temperature?

A A. 36-37.5°C B B. 39°C C C. 31.5°C D D. 40.5°C

What is not a sign of shock?

A A. Pale, clammy skin B B. Increased pulse rate C C. Nausea D D. Wide eyes and open mouth

In which situation would you wrap a casualty in a cold, wet sheet?

A A. Stroke B B. Fainting C C. Heat stroke D D. Heart attack

For an infant who is choking, you would perform

A A- The Hiemlick maneuver B B-CPR C C-Back blows and chest thrusts D D- Hold the infant upside down and strike between the shoulder blades

When helping an unconscious choking victim, you would give an adult chest thrusts. For an infant you would give blows and chest thrusts. back

A A- 3,3,3 B B- 5,3,3 C C- 5,5,5 D D- 3,5,5

When caring for a choking infant, what position is the infant held in?

A A- Upside down by the ankles and shoulders B B- Face up on a flat surface C C- Face down on your forearm with head lower than the body D D- Face down on your knee, with head lowerthan the body

A boy on your bus has been coughing for over a minute, what should you do?

A A- Begin rescue breathing and call 123 B B- Get medical attention as quickly as possible C C- Encourage the boy to cough and get medical attention D D- Encourage the boy to cough and begin giving abdominal thrusts

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