Quiz: Another Exams

Beta thalassemia major is characterized byall of the following EXCEPT

A b) Leucocyte and platelet are normal B b) Leucocyte and platelet are normal C c) Shorten red cell life span D d) Effective erythropoiesis

Sedroplastic anemia is not characterized by

A a) Ineffective erythropoiesis B b) Ring Sedro blast C c) Decreased transferrin D d) Thrombin time measure

Which of the following not the cause ofmicrocytic anemia

A a) Thalathemia B b) Iron deficiency anemia C c) Anemia of chronic disease D d) Pancytopenia

Which of the following increasereticulocytes

A a) Sickle cell anemia B b) Vitamin B defeciancy C c) Aplastic anemia D d) None of these

Which of the following not increasereticulocytes

A a) Sickle cell anemia B b) Aplastic anemia C c) Iron defeciancy anemia D d) None of these

Which of the following increase reticulocytes

A a) Mylodisplastic syndrome B b) Lymphatic disorders C c) Hemolytic anemia D d) None of these

Which of the following doesn't use todetect iron defeciancy anemia

A a) Iron profile B b) Hb electrophoresis C c) Transferrin saturation D d) Heptiglouline

Which bacteria present in sickle cellanemia with iron over load

A a) Yersenia hemolytica B b) Slamonella C c) Strept D d) Staph

Hexous mono phosate shunt increasesource of

A a) NADPHand G6pD B b) Glucose C c) ATP D d) None of these

Hemolytic anemia which of the followingtest detect it

A a) Coombt test B b) Preiphral blood smear C c) Fenitic test D d) All of the above

Which of the following tests important forthalathemia

A a) Hb electrophoresis B b) Coombs test C c) Genitic test D d) None of these

Which of the following increase reticulocytes

A a) Mylodisplastic syndrome B b) Lymphatic disorders C c) Hemolytic anemia D d) None of these

In anemia of chronic disease

A a) Decrease production of erthropiotein B b) Increase production of erythropiotein C c) Decreased transferrin D d) None of these

Bernium methyle blue for

A a) Reticulocytes B b) White blood cells C c) RBCs D d) None of these

Hemolytic anemia which of the followingtest detect it

A a) Coombt test B b) Preiphral blood smear C c) Fenitic test D d) None of these

Dstribution of normal Hb electrophoresis

A a) 80%A B b) >90%B C c) <90%A D d) <70%A

How acute leukemia produce anemia

A a) Decrease production of RBCs B b) Maldistribution C c) Destintion D d) Decrease survival

DIC characterized by

A a) Porolonged PT, PTT with normal platlete count B b) Porolonged pT, normal PTT with normal platletecount C c) Normal PT, PTT, with normal platlete count D d) Porolonged PT, PTT, with low platlete count

All of the following cause thrombocytopeniaEXCEPT

A a) DIC B b) ITP C c) Pancytopenia D d) Hemophilia A

Which of the following increase PT

A a) Hemophilia A B b) Hemophilia B C c) Anemia D d) Hypofibronigemia

Thrombine time charactrized by

A a) Converge fibrinogen into fibrine B b) Plasmongen into plasmin C c) Decrease production of RBCs. D d) Hypofibronigemia

Hemophilia B

A a) Porolonged PT B b) Porolonged PTT C c) Porolonged TT D d) Porolonged FT

Oral anticoagulant

A a) Porolonged PT B b) Porolonged PTT C c) Porolonged TT D d) Porolonged FT

Hemophilia B is caused by prolongationof

A a) PT B b) APTT C c) TT D d) Platelet count

Platelet adhesion defect

A a) Bernard soulier syndrome B b) Hemoch-scholein syndrome C c) Bechet syndrome D d) Down syndrome

Plain X-ray is preferred in all except

A a.Stones B b.Calcification C c.Bones D d.Soft tissue

-All of the following is contraindications in case of pregnancy except

A a. MRI B b. CT C c. US D d. a+c

What is the most accurate for diagnosis of spinal cord lesion

A a. Plain X-ray B b. CT C c. MRI D d. US

What is the most accurate for diagnosis vestibulocochlear nerve

A a. CT B b. MRI C c. US D d. Plain X-ray

The first of choice for diagnosis Thyroid gland and Salivary gland

A a- Plain X-ray B b- CT C c- MRI D d- US

Primary imaging in Carotid is

A a- CTA B b- MRA C c- US D d- Plain X-ray

MRI is can detect all of the following except

A a. Nerve roots B b. Vertebral disc C c. Fractur of spine D d. Facet joint

Which of the following can be virtual endoscopy

A a. Plain X-ray B b. CT C c. MRI D d. US

CTA is perefered in

A a. pulmonary embolism B b. aortic dissection C c. circle of will D d. all of above

CT is perefered in breast lesion

A a. true B b. false C c. cancer bladder D d. all of the above

Causes of hematuria

A a. urinary polyp B b. renal stone C c. cancer bladder D d. all of the above

Disadvantage of X-ray is

A a- can not detect radioopaque stone B b- can not detect radio lucent stone C c- CT D d- MRI

the first choice in chest lesion

A a- X-ray B b- US C c- CT D d- MRI

Most diagnostic in appendicitis is

A a. MRI B b. CT C c. US D d. X-ray

Imagine modalities of git tube is

A a. Barium B b. CT C c. All of the above D d. None of these

In case of mediastinal mass the imaging of choice is

A a. X-ray B b. US C c. MRI D d. CT

Types of plain X-ray in case of urinary system

A a. Ascending B b. Descending C c. IVP D d. All of the above

To diagnose the muscles,joints and cartilage we need

A a. MRI B b. CT C c. US D d. plain X-ray

Military nodules is

A a. <2mm B b. 2-7mm C c. 7-30 mm D d. None of these

The most accurate for head injury

A a- CT B b- X-ray C c- MRI D d- None of these

Types of CT in chest examination

A a. Bone windows B b. Mediastinal windows C c. Lung windows D d. All of the above

In case of diffuse axonal injury which is preferred

A a-CT B b-MRI C c- X-ray D d- US

The most sensitive sequence for stroke imaging

A a- CTP B b- DWI C c- CTA D d- CTTP

Most common pattern of pulmonary nodules

A a. Granuloma B b. Bronchogenic carcinoma C c. Metastasis D d. None of these

is considered a test that used to assess the severity in lupus nephritis

A A- C-ANA B B- P-ANCA C C- ANA D D- Anti ds DNA.

when we do blood culture?

A A- after administration of antibiotic B B- before administration of antibiotic C C- In a convalescing stage D D- In afebrile stage

In Serum lipoprotein

A A- Present in prebeta B B- Band at origin C C- Alpha band D D- Beta band

The enzyme responsible for breaking down protein is known as

A A- Lipase B B- Amylase C C- Pancrease D D- Protease

a Patient is suffered from vitamin K deficiency.Which of the coagulation factors will not be affected?

A A- factor II B B- factor VII C C- Factor VIII D D- factor IX

The following are examples of primary immunodeficiency except

A A- Digeorge syndrome B B- Leucocyte adhesion deficiency C C- Graves'disease D D- Severe combined immunodeficiency

What is the type of the salmonella species causing food poisoning?

A A- Salmonella typhi B B- Salmonella typhimurium C C- Salmonella Para typhi A D D- Salmonella Para typhi B

Serum lipase level increases in

A A- Paget's disease B B- Gaucher's disease C C- Acute pancreatitis D D- Diabetes mellitus

Storage and shelf life of platelets

A A- +(2-6)℃ for 35 days. B B- +22℃ for 5 dayn. C C- -30C for 1 year. D D- -30℃ for 5 years

Thrombin time measures Conversion of

A A- prothrombin to thrombin B B- fibrinogen to fibrin C C- factor VII to active factor VII D D- plasminogen to plasmin

Reticulocyte count is decreased in

A A- Iron deficiency anemia B B- Aplastic anemia C C- Hemolytic anemia D D- Thalassemia

Which of the following is not a chronic myeloproliferaive neoplasm?

A A- chronic myeloid leukemia B B- polycythemia Vera C C- primary myelofibrosis D D- chronic lymphocytic leukemia

Low density lipoproteins (LDL)

A A- Transport cholesterol from liver to tissues B B- Good cholesterol C C- Contain Apo A D D- Transport cholesterol from tissues to liver

Which of the following enzymes is a sensitive marker of alcoholic liver disease?

A A- Alanine transaminase B B- Aspartate transaminase C C- Gamma-Glutamyl transferase D D- Alkaline phosphatase

The following are examples of secondary immunodeficiency except

A A- HIV/AIDS B B- immunosuppression due to measles infection C C- malnutrition D D- chronic granulomatous disease

Chest U/S Advantages

A a- No exposure to radiation B b- Cheap & available C c- Can differentiate between pleural effusion and thickening D d- All of the above

Ascending and voiding cystourethrogram Indications

A a. ldentify urethra & urthera stricture segments B b. Diagnosis of vesico ureteric reflux C c. a&b D d. Non of the above

CR components include

A a- Cassette and sensitive plate B b- Digitizer & Computer system C c- Printer camera D d- All of the above

Preparation of I.V. contrast include

A a) Renal function B b) Hepatitis markers C c) Tumor markers D d) Non of the above

Interventional management of DVT called

A a) Thrombolysis B b) embolization C c) biopsy D d) Non of the above

C-arm uses Intervention procedures At operating rooms for

A a- Orthopedics B b- Vascular C c- GIT&Urology D d- All of the above

The first imaging modality for patient with cough and fever is

A a. MRI B b. CT C c. ultrasound D d. Plain x-ray chest

Breast micro-calcification is diagnostic of

A a) Benign mass B b) Malignant mass C c) a&b D d) Non of the above

FAST scan is

A a) U/S performed for trauma patient B b) CT performed for trauma patient C c) MRI performed for trauma patient D d) a&b

DW-MRI is called

A a) Infarction sequence B b) Hemorrhage sequence C c) Trauma sequence D d) Non of the above

The best imaging modality for suspected case with pulmonary embolism will be

A A- plain x ray B B- Echocardiography C C- pulmonary CT angiography D d- MRIchest

imaging of blood vessels can be performed by

A a. Color Doppler ultrasound B b. CTA C c. MRA D d. All of the above

the best imaging modality for assessment of renal stones is

A A- CTU B B- plain x ray C C- ultrasound D D- MRI

diagnosis of cervical rib can be obtained from

A a- plain x-ray cervical spine AP view B b- plain x ray cervical spine lateral view C c- plain x ray cervical spine oblique view D d- plain x ray c.spine open mouth view

diagnosis of Sacralised L5 vertebrae can be obtained from

A A. plain x ray lumber spine lateral view B B. plain x ray lumber spine AP view C C. plain x ray lumber spine oblique view D D. plain x ray lumber spine flexion position

which of the following not the cause of microcytic anemia

A a. Thalathemia B b. Iron deficiency anemia C c. Anemia of chronic disease D d. Pancytopenia

which of the following increase reticulocytes

A a. Sickle cell anemia B b. Vitamin B defeciancy C c. Aplastic anemia D d. None of these

which of the following not increase reticulocytes

A a. Sickle cell anemia B b. Aplastic anemia C c. Iron defeciancy anemia D d. None of these

all of the following cause thrombocytopenia except

A a. DIG B b. ITP C c. Pancytopenia D d. Hemophilia A

which of the following increase PT, APTT

A a. Factor 12defeciancy B b. Hemophilia A C c. DIC D d. Thrombocytopenia

which of the following increase reticulocytes

A a. Mylodisplastic syndrome B b. Lymphatic disorders C c. Hemolytic anemia D d. None of these

which of the following doesn't use to detect iron defeciancy anemia

A a. Iron profile B b. Hb electrophoresis C c. Transferrin saturation D d. Heptiglouline

which of the following increase PT

A a. Hemophilia A B b. Hemophilia B C c. Anemia D d. Hypofibronigemia

defeciancy of factor X

A a. Porolonged PT with porolonged APTT B b. Normal PT with porolonged PTT C c. Porolonged PT with normal PTT D d. None of these

distribution of normal Hb electrophoresis

A a. 80%A B b. > 90%B C c. <90%A D d. <70%A

how acute leukemia produce anemia

A a. Decrease production of RBCs B b. Maldistribution C c. Destintion D d. Decrease survival

platlete adhesion defect

A a. Barner solier syndrome B b. Immuno thrombocytopenic purpura C c. DIC D d. Glemman

in anemia of chronic disease

A a. Decrease production of erthropiotein B b. Increase production of erythropiotein C c. All of the above D d. None of the above

which bacteria present in sickle cell anemia with iron over load

A a. Yersenia hemolytica B b. Slamonella C c. Strept D d. Staph

hexous mono phosate shunt increase source of

A a. NADPH and G6pD B b. Glucose C c. ATP D d. All of the above

thrombine time charactrized by

A a. Converge fibrinogen into fibrine B b. Plasmongen into plasmin C c. All of the above D d. None of the above

hemophilia B

A a. Porolonged PT B b. Porolonged PTT C c. Porolonged TT D d. Porolonged FT

hemolytic anemia which of the following test detect it

A a. Coombt test B b. Preiphral blood smear C c. Fenitic test D d. None of these

which of the following tests important for thalathemia

A a. Hb electrophoresis B b. Coombs test C c. Genitic test D d. None of these

which of the following increase reticulocytes

A a. Mylodisplastic syndrome B b. Lymphatic disorders C c. Hemolytic anemia D d. None of these

lashman stain for

A a. Blood film B b. Reticulocytes C c. All of the above D d. None of the above

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