Quiz: Formative Exams 2024

1- A female child walks well and runs stiffly. She kisses her parents and helps with housework. She says 10 words but cannot put 3 words together. She uses words for her needs. She feeds herself with a spoon. She can build a tower with 4 cubes. Most likely age in months:

A A. 12 B B. 15 C C. 18 D D. 24

2- Breast feeding is not allowed when a mother is taking following medication:

A A. Amoxicillin. B B. Rifampin. C C. Acyclovir. D D. Cyclosporine.

3- The breast milk contains:

A A. High iron B B. High calcium. C C. Low phosphorus. D D. High vitamin K

4- Compared to mature breast milk, colostrum is not characterized by:

A A. Higher in protein. B B. Amount 30-100 ml/day. C C. Higher in vitamin A D E. Higher in fat.

5- The first teeth to erupt in most children are:

A A. Maxillary lateral incisors. B B. Maxillary first molars. C C. Mandibular cuspids (canines). D D. Mandibular central incisors.

6- All the following are correct about growth, EXCEPT:

A A. Growth in the first year of life is growth hormone dependent. B B. Head and neck comprises 25% of body length at birth. C C. A one year old child should have mid arm circumference 13.5 cm. D D. Lymphoid system in childhood exceeds the adult size.

7- The normal pattern of physical growth is characterized by:

A A. Rapid in infancy then gradually slows to steady pace from 5 years to speed up again during puberty. B B. Rate of growth is stationary throughout infancy, childhood and puberty C C. Steady during infancy and childhood and then progressively more rapid in late childhood and puberty. D D. Slow at first then accelerates until completion of puberty

8- The ratio of upper to lower segments is about:

A A. 1:1.7 at birth and 1:1 at adolescence B B. 1.2:1 at birth and 1:1.2 at adolescence. C C. 1.2:1 at birth and adolescence D D. 1.7:1 at birth and 1:1 at adolescence

9- A normal 4-year-old would be expected to be able to do all of the following EXCEPT:

A A. Goes to toilet B B. Draw a triangle. C C. Draws a person with 5-6 parts. D D. Count to 4.

10- All the following about normally distributed observations are correct, EXCEPT:

A A. The mean, median and mode are essentially equal. B B. ±3SD comprises >99% of the observations. C C. -1SD equals about 16 percentile. D D. -2 SD denotes 90% of the median.

11- Which of the following is not a feature of Down syndrome:

A A. Hypoplasia of distal phalanx of 5th finger B B. Hypotonia. C C. Protruding tongue. D E. Increased birth weight.

12- All the following statements are true about Down syndrome, EXCEPT:

A A. Some degree of mental retardation is always found. B B. Friendly nonaggressive behavior C C. About 4-5% are due to translocation. D D. There is an increased incidence among males.

13- Clinical picture of Turner syndrome include all the following, EXCEPT:

A A. Epilepsy B B. Cardiac defect. C C. Infertility. D D. Mental retardation in some cases.

14- The picture of XXY syndrome does NOT include:

A A. Absent secondary sexual characters. B B. Increased pituitary gonadotropins. C C. Mental retardation may be present. D E. Short stature.

15- Breath holding attack is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

A A. Antiepileptic drugs prevent subsequent attacks. B B. Few generalized clonic convulsions may occur. C C. Commonly mistaken as epilepsy. D D. A precipitating event is always present.

16- All the following definitions in genetics are correct, EXCEPT:

A A. Nondisjunction: Failure of two members of a chromosome pair to disjoin during gametogenesis. B B. Alleles: The alternate forms of a gene at the same locus C C. Trisomy: Three copies of a given chromosome per cell D D. Polyploid: An abnormal chromosomal complement which exceeds the diploid number e.g. 47 or more.

17- Each of the following chromosomal disorders has the correct clinical finding, EXCEPT:

A A. 47, XX 21+: Simian crease. B B. 47, XXY: Tall stature. C C. 45, X: Webbed neck. D E. 47, XYY: Peculiar features.

18- Regarding autosomal recessive inheritance which of the following is correct:

A A. Males are more often affected than females B B. Each child of two heterozygous parents has a 25% chance of being affected and 50% chance of being a carrier C C. The gene mutation is expressed in the heterozygous state D E. One parent is a carrier.

19- Genetic counseling includes all of the following, EXCEPT

A A. Describe to the parents prenatal diagnosis if available B B. Inform the parents about diagnosis, prognosis and possible treatment. C C. Decide for the parents the suitable option. D D. Establish an exact diagnosis.

20- A 14-year-old girl shows no signs of breast development and has not started menstruating. Examination reveals stature well below the 5th percentile with normal facial appearance. There is prominent cubitus valgus deformity. Which of the following studies is most likely to reveal the etiology of this patient’ condition?

A A. Karyotype. B B. Gonadotropin level. C C. Growth hormone level D D. Abdominal ultrasound.

21- A child has been suffering from asthma for the last 2 years. The condition worsens since his parents purchased a dog and a cat. The most likely cause for worsening asthma:

A A. Only dog can produce asthma. B B. Only cat can produce asthma. C C. None of them produce asthma. D D. Both of them produce asthma.

22- If one student develops streptococcal pharyngitis in a class, the recommendation for other students should be:

A A. The student who sits next to the student who got infected should receive penicillin therapy. B B. The throat culture should be obtained from students who developed symptoms and signs of streptococcal pharyngitis. C C. The class should be closed for a few days. D D. Everybody should receive penicillin because the final examination is due next week.

23- A child is diagnosed with allergic rhinitis. He is allergic to pollen and dust mites. The child may develop in future:

A A. Anaphylactic reaction to immunization B B. Allergy to medication C C. Asthma D D. Otitis media

24- A boy developed anaphylactic reaction after a food intake. This reaction is due to:

A A. IgA B B. IgG C C. IgM D D. IgE

25- A 6-year-old boy is diagnosed to have a coagulation abnormality. He was bleeding heavily after the tonsillectomy. Laboratory results reveal decreased factor VIII C, increased bleeding time, normal PT, and increased PTT. Most likely diagnosis:

A A. Hemophilia A B B. Hemophilia B C C. Carrier hemophilia D D. von-Willebrand disease

26- Inhaled steroids have many complications EXCEPT

A A. Dysphonia B B. Growth impairment C C. Oropharyngeal candidiasis D D. Dysarthria

27- In the diagnosis of rheumatic fever, which of the following may be helpful?

A A. Staphylococcus aureus grown on throat culture. B B. Splinter hemorrhages. C C. Polyarthritis. D D. A generalized macular-papular rash.

28- Features of homozygous sickle cell disease include the following EXCEPT

A A. Pigment gallstones B B. Presentation usually during the first few months of life. C C. Proliferative retinopathy D D. Increased incidence of Salmonella osteomyelitis.

29- An infant born with malformed forearms is noted to develop severe hemorrhagic manifestations. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of the bleeding problem?.

A A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation. B B. Factor VIII deficiency C C. Vitamin K deficiency. D D. Thrombocytopenia.

30- A 12 year old girl presents with a history of cough and breathlessness on exercise. She has seasonal rhinitis, and admits to have started smoking. Clinical examination is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?.

A A. Sinusitis. B B. Asthma. C C. Allergic rhinitis D D. Gastroesophageal reflux.

31- A 2-year-old child presents with fever and rash, all the following questions to the mother are helpful to reach the diagnosis, EXCEPT:

A A. When the rash appeared after the onset of fever. B B. Is there associated runny nose, sneezing and cough C C. Does the fever respond to antipyretics D D. Is their history of recent contact to one of the specific exanthemata.

32- If a pregnant woman in the first trimester is exposed to a case of rubella, it is recommended to:

A A. Give IM immune serum globulin. B B. Determine rubella specific antibody titer, if already high or not rising allow pregnancy to continue. C C. Observe for several weeks and if she does not develop clinical rubella, then there will be no risk to the fetus D D. Immunize her with rubella vaccine

33- All the following are common features of congenital rubella syndrome EXCEPT:

A A. Conductive deafness. B B. Cataract. C C. Congenital heart disease. D D. Microcephaly.

34- All the following are correct about rubella, EXCEPT:

A A. Immune serum globulin is highly protective for a susceptible contact. B B. Manifestations are mild. C C. Rash develops within 24 hrs after onset of fever. D D. Rash is macular or maculopapular.

35- All the following are correct about varicella EXCEPT

A A. Lesions heal without scarring. B B. Rash is more on the limbs than on the trunk. C C. Infectivity remains until the rash is crusted. D D. Rash is pleomorphic.

36- Long term immunity follows all the following infections, EXCEPT:

A A. Rubella. B B. Mumps. C C. Tetanus. D D. Measles.

37- All the following are causes of maculopapular rash, EXCEPT:

A A. Varicella. B B. Roseola infantum C C. Measles. D D. Drugs

38- All the following are correct about fever, EXCEPT:

A A. Nonspecific viral illness is among the commonest causes. B B. Sponging with cold water is better avoided C C. Remittent fever means that it is present for some hours during the 24 hours D D. To feel for body temperature touching epigastrium is better than the hands.

39- Which of following does not make a case of fever potentially serious?

A A. Associated chills and rigors. B B. Few petechial spots on the skin C C. Difficult to awake. D D. Inconsolable child.

40- Which statement about Koplik's spots in measles is correct?

A A. Appears with the onset of fever and continues during the period of rash. B B. Only seen in severe cases C C. Appears with the onset of fever but disappears with the onset of rash. D D. Appears with the onset of the rash.

41- Which of the following vaccines can be given before 1 year of age:

A A. Oral typhoid vaccine B B. Varicella vaccine. C C. Hepatitis A vaccine D D. H influenzae type b vaccine.

42- All the following conditions have protective vaccines, EXCEPT:

A A. Toxigenic E-coli diarrhea. B B. S. pneumoniae meningitis. C C. Cancer of the cervix. D D. Varicella

44- Which of the following vaccines is destroyed by freezing

A A. Hepatitis B. B B. TOPV. C C. Measles D D. MMR.

45- Regarding the type of vaccine all the following are correct, EXCEPT:

A A. H. influenzae vaccine: capsular polysaccharide B B. Salk (IPV): killed organisms. C C. MMR: living attenuated viruses. D D. Meningococcal vaccine: living attenuated organisms.

46- Which of the following is considered a contraindication to DPT:

A A. A 3-year-old child who was never vaccinated before. B B. History of febrile convulsions. C C. Degenerative brain disease. D D. Severe malnutrition.

46- Which of the following is considered a contraindication to DPT:

A A. A 3-year-old child who was never vaccinated before. B B. History of febrile convulsions. C C. Degenerative brain disease. D D. Severe malnutrition.

47- Which of the following vaccines are more likely to cause fever in the 1st 24 hours following vaccination:

A A. BCG. B B. Hepatitis B. C C. TOPV. D D. DPT.

48- All the following are correct regarding the national (routine) schedule of vaccination in Egypt, EXCEPT:

A A. A booster dose of DPT is given at 18 months. B B. Four doses of TOPV are given during the first year. C C. MMR is given at 18 months. D D. A dose of hepatitis B vaccine is given at birth.

49- Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine:

A A. Typhoid (conventional). B B. Meningococcal vaccine. C C. BCG. D D. Pertussis.

50- An unvaccinated one year child comes for the first time what vaccine(s) should be given at the 1st visit:

A A. TOPV, DPT and Hepatitis B. B B. TOPV and DPT. C C. BCG, TOPV and DPT D D. BCG, TOPV, DPT and Hepatitis B

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